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When the redeemed sin and God still blesses Posted on July 26 2011 Question: Tue, July 26, 2011 Question by Lisa Blake: I was recently reading in Genesis and couldn't help but be struck by the deception employed time and again by "righteous" patriarchs of our faith. It seems it was no big thing to lie - Abraham about Sarah not being his wife, Leah and Rachel's father deceiving Jacob over their marriage(s), Rebekah and Jacob deceiving Isaac so Jacob receives the blessing and not Esau and so on. Did God really have to employ such tactics to have His will be done, or is it just an illustration of man's imperfection and fallen nature, and God's immeasurable goodness that these men still received God's blessing? Answer: Dear Lisa, One thing I love about Scripture is that it reveals the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth - warts and all! Frome cover to cover the grand theme of Scripture is God's redemption of his people. And the reason redemption is necessary is because, as the preacher said in the Old Testament, "Surely there is not a righteous man on earth who does good and never sins" (Ecclesiastes 7:20) and, as the apostle said in the New Testament, "All have sinned and come short of the glory of God" (Romans 6:23). Let's explore the concept of "righteous" patriarchs. In spite of the fact that the patriarchs (Abraham, Isaac, & Jacob) were sinners, they were nonetheless personally chosen by God to be his treasured possession above all other people and nations on the earth (Genesis 12:1-3; Deuteronomy 7:6-8). And it's important to note that they weren't chosen because they were more "righteous" than their pagan neighbors (Deuteronomy 9:4-6). No, they were just objects of God's mercy the same as you and me (Romans 9:15-16); chosen by him according to his will and good pleasure (Ephesians 1:5, 11), not because they were worthy or righteous. The reason the patriarchs in the Old Testament were called "righteous" (even though they were simultaneously sinners) is for the same reason that we are called "righteous" or "saints" in the New Testament (even though we are simultaneously sinners) - We are all pronounced or declared righteous by God because of our faith in him; even though we aren't righteous actually (Compare: Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:1-5). We aren't righteous before God because of our works, but because of our faith in him - God justifies the ungodly (us) - this includes the patriarchs. We must never forget that sinners who lived both before the cross and after the cross are justified by faith and not by works. Our righteousness, as was theirs, is an imputed righteousness - a gift - supplied and applied to us from an outside source - namely, Christ (Romans 5:17). So the fact that these redeemed patriarchs still continued to sin (and sometimes often) doesn't surprise me. I believe I'm also redeemed; yet I know I still sin. Furthermore, if we read the narratives closely, I believe these men's conscience were troubled by their sin (lying, deception, etc.) and that there was consequence to their sin. The blessing that was attached to their life is a testament to God's goodness, mercy, and grace rather than a testament to their righteousness. And so it is with us. As believers we get mercy from God's hand far more often than we get justice. And let us remember: The mercy that God grants is always gratuitous and never obligatory. Justice is deserved; mercy is never deserved, it is a gracious gift. Your comment, "Did God really have to employ such tactics to have His will be done..." caught my attention. Every human being is responsible for his own actions. God never employs any action that causes an individual to sin (James 1:13). Yet, we must never think that man's sin can ever thwart or frustrate the immutable will or eternal purpose of God. God's eternal purpose and will is accomplished perfectly in spite of man's sin and rebellion (Isaiah 46:8-11). How does this work? Read how concisely the Westminster Confession of Faith puts it: Chapter 3. 1. "God, from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass: yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin, nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures; nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established." Chapter 5. 2. Although, in relation to the foreknowledge and decree of God, the first Cause, all things come to pass immutably, and infallibly; yet, by the same providence, he ordereth them to fall out, according to the nature of second causes, either necessarily, freely, or contingently. Chapter 5. 4. The almighty power, unsearchable wisdom, and infinite goodness of God so far manifest themselves in his providence, that it extendeth itself even to the first fall, and all other sins of angels and men; and that not by a bare permission, but such as hath joined with it a most wise and powerful bounding, and otherwise ordering, and governing of them, in a manifold dispensation, to his own holy ends; yet so, as the sinfulness thereof proceedeth only from the creature, and not from God, who, being most holy and righteous, neither is nor can be the author or approver of sin. I hope this helps. Great question Lisa! 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